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Can the verb's position be correlated with a semantic effect? Or, to recast the question more theoretically, can verb movement be semantically motivated? In the case of Hungarian, I will argue that it can be and moreover that the particular verb movement in question has a semantic effect previously undiagnosed as a potential correlate of verb movement. The argument is built around the syntactic and semantic properties of the progressive in Hungarian.
In Approaches to Hungarian, vol. 5, István Kenesei (ed.), pp. 153–189. JATE, Szeged, Hungary, 1995.
Paper, scan (grayscale, 300 dpi)
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http://pinon.sdf-eu.org/covers/aph.html